I checked on the query raised by Shobin on the reference to Assyria made by the Taftee material in Amos 3:9 whereas our Bibles had Ashdod instead. I checked with the RSV Bible which Taftee recommends for this course and they have translated Ashdod as Assyria since this seems to make better sense. The original text says Ashdod and this is a change made by RSV treating Ashdod as a scribal error. I find most conservative commentaries and Bibles translate it as Ashdod.
The TAFTEE Course in Week 2 Day 3 frame 11 reads as follows:
"From Amos 3:9 we see that the prophet predicted that it would be through the armies of (Assyria) that judgement would come upon (Egypt).
This is erroneous. In either case the passage is not referring to punishment on Egypt but on Israel. So whether we take it as Ashdod (a better reading) or Assyria, Ashdod and Egypt are called to witness the judgment God is bringing upon Israel. The instrument for this judgement though not mentioned by name is implied to be Assyria in Amos 3:11 making the RSV reading patently erroneous.
So Week 2 Day 3 frame 11 should read as follows:-
"From Amos 3:11 we see that the prophet predicted that it would be through the armies of Assyria (implied) that judgement would come upon Israel".
This is my view and not TAFTEE's.
Good work by Shobin for spotting the error.
Mr. Lee and others . . . a question came up in our staff devotions this morning. First, how would we define the role "Apostle". Secondly, Paul addressed himself as an Apostle (i.e. Gel' 1:1). He was even obligated to defend his role to other leaders in the church (i.e. Gal 2:7-9) " . . . as Peter is an Apostle to the Jews I am to the Jews etc." How, was he qualified to claim that role? How could/would one claim that role today? Peter
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